Re: Drawing Randomly from an Infinite Set
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He stills says that the odd numbers and prime numbers can be put in one to one correspondence, and thinks it follows from this that they are equally likely to be drawn.
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you can put the odd numbers in one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers. Does this mean that if you draw a number, the odds of drawing an odd number is the same as the odds of drawing a number? (hint: the odds of drawing a number given that you drew a number is 1)
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