Re: Math behind flush odds
I'm confused. How do you ultimately arrive at 1.85 to 1 for a flush draw when you have 9 outs? After the flop, isn't it 38/9 with 47 unseen cards? When calculating pot odds, isn't it then 4.222 to 1 on a flush draw after the flop as opposed to the 1.85 to 1 that you get by using the calculation that David Sklansky (and the prior poster) has given us? The 1.85 to 1 result would almost never make it prohibitive to call on the come. I would greatly appreciate your insight as this has bugged me for a while. [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]
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