Re: Why did I play this bad hand?
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I think it's justified in that I knew costs me $90 to see a turn, and if I hit I get about $1850 from him... about 80% sure of that, I'd say.
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Your reasoning is atrocious. You assume you get $1850 from him when you hit, but villain is a maniac capable of having any 2 cards. So what makes you think he'll have such a strong hand that he'll get all of his chips in? Was he going all in every single hand? I find this hard to believe.
Generally, calling with junk is better against tight players who have trouble making tough laydowns, because the fact that they're in the hand indicates that they have a strong hand. A large percentage of the time that you play 24o against this villain you're going to fold post-flop. And a large percentage of the time you hit your miracle straight or trips and try extracting chips he'll fold his junk Q9o on a 244 board or something like that.
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Thank you for the reply, this is the kind of post I was looking for. For some reason it didn't enter my mind that me hitting the hand isn't the only requirement, but that he has to have a monster hand. He would play with me for a bit of money with any two cards, but not always all-in. Mainly because I have a weak-tight reputation at the particular table with those players, because I'm more willing to fold my hand than about any other player at the table, but of course that doesn't mean I'll get him all in. Thanks for the input.
But don't be too surprised about the player... he does go all in quite a bit, it seems that money is no object to him.
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