[Godfather80]

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I believed my tens were the best hand preflop. I pinned his raise (in this very aggressive game against a very aggresssive player) as a steal to pick up weak limps. He overbets the pot preflop (raises more than double) - I call.

What part of this flop could I possibly have hit, given my preflop limp? Will he play AA this fast on the flop when chances are I hit NOTHING and had NOTHING to begin with?

Perhaps, but on this uncoordinated board, it looks so much like a continuation bet on the flop trying to play off a miss and/or fold a pair. The board is not coordinated, there are very few hands that hit this hard. The worst he could be up against is a straight draw (TQ) or a pair with a kicker which could pair.

We still could be dealing with an overpair, though the preflop action reeks of steal. How weak does my preflop limp seem? Flop bet does seem like overpair though.

I see no value in raising here with my hand on the flop. I want him to continue his steal or define his hand so I can get away. My raise would look extremely weak short of bumping it 200 in this game... at which point, I've invested way too much when I could release it on the turn easily. I think your idea of raising to get info is much worse than calling and utilizing position.

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I'm curious to know, when you called his turn all-in, what possible hands do you put him on (obviously these would be hands you beat considering you called)?

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To be honest, a cold, hard, steal, which a very aggressive player is capable of. Honesttly I just saw no reason for him to overbet the pot, holding an overpair, with his image... he would get plenty of action with his overpair short of pushing in here. In fact, he would get no action by pushing in here against most (90%) players. Also, he probably doesn't realize I know his image, so more psychology goes into my decision than "he raised pre, he must have a big hand".

Let me ask you, what range of hands pushes the turn here? This is a pot-sized overbet, keep in mind. This is folding everything but the very best hands that hit the flop (including the straight which just hit), why would he want that? Is this some tourney-esque way of protecting an overpair from TJ or something?

He doesn't expect me to call with one pair (he doesn't know I know he's a LAG.. I could see him thinking I would muster a call after he had showed some bluffs but no way when I'm about 2 orbits fresh onto the table), so why would he bet this way with one pair? Did he hit a set?

Something about the turn overbet just DOESNT fit with the picture, given the amount of weakness I've shown by limping preflop and calling on the flop (though I'll disagree with you and say that it's equivalent to raising in a lot of senses).

Will post results soon.

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Thanks for taking the time to respond to my post. I have one remaining question which is: if you felt that your tens were the best hand preflop, but a vulnerable best hand because of the possibility overcards flopping, why not simply reraise preflop and take the hand now?