Roulette Probability Question
Say you sit down at the wheel and agree to bet $1 38 times on the same number.
Given 0 and 00, Roulette pays 35-1 on a single number bet and you have a 1/38 shot of hitting your number each spin. So after 38 spins, you will on average have $36.
After 38 spins, which is more likely?
(a) You have more than $36.
(b) You have less than $36 (0 dollars).
(c) You are as likely to have 0 dollars as more than $36.
My gut says c. Can anyone confirm?
- Jason
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