still confused. this simply means that if you have 2 diamonds in your hand and 2 diamonds hit the flop. You know of 5 known cards (the other 47 cards you do not know where they are at). If you assume that only a flush will win it for you then you have 9 remaining cards to hit your flush. 47 cards remaining in the deck, 9 of which will give you a winning hand, 38 of which will not. your ratio then is approx 4 to 1, 4:1 (38 to 9, 38:9). If you factor in that you have 2 cards to go that will increase your chances by 2. so you could accept odds as low as 2:1.

Now in his example the bet was 10 and the pot was already 90. You need at least 2:1 odds to call this bet. The ratio of the pot to the bet is 100:10 or 10:1. These odds are much better than 2:1, so you would call the bet.

The second part of the example says that the pot is only 10 and the bet is 40. The ratio of the pot to bet is now 50:40 or 5:4 or 1.25:1. We already found in order to be getting the right odds on the call you would need 2:1 odds. you are only getting 1.25:1. This is a fold.

I think it is easier to think of pot odds in terms of a ratio than percentages etc... A lot simpler to do the quick math in your head at game time.

another example would be with a pocket pair (say 6's). If you think the only way you can win is to hit a set of 6's then you only have 2 cards left in the deck that will win you the pot(a 2 outer). Again the 3 flop cards are known as well as the 2 in your hand. So you know 5 cards and do not know where the other 47 cards are. this is a ratio of 45:2 (remaining cards to outs you have) or 22.5:1 (but with 2 cards remaining, your odds are improved to 11.25:1). In the first betting scenario 11.25:1 would not be good odds enough to call a 10:1 bet (pot to bet).

This is pot odds.

Hope this helped.