[Jdanz]

if you follow the logic of your argument, that it is a black decision rather then outside influence, black's economically infererior position can only be explained by racial pathology.

In the context of history you can just as easily say that about the white race in the dark ages compared to middle easterners or asians. It's just intellectually lazy to disregard situation, and assume that a lack of performance by one group is can be explained solely by the current situation.

edit: this view sees black "under achievemtn" as spontaneous and self-imposed, at which point you'd have to ask why.