Re: Call all-in PF w/ QQ when Villain pushed PF w/ AA 5 hands earlier?
Here's my thinking on this:
If he's a solid player, he's not massively overbetting like this, especially on my first hand at the table w/ no read on me...
Since from this I can infer he's not a solid player, can I not also infer he could be pushing with a range of hands?
Then, what are the odds he's dealt AA against my KK, and then 5 hands later, dealt AA or KK against my QQ?
Interested to hear thoughts on this line of thinking.
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