[pokerjoker]

We are discussing Hume and Kant in class. Basically Hume says just because an event has happened one billion times out of one billion (ex. the sun rising) it will not necessarily happen again. Kant says it will.

I was wondering how one would express the probability of a unique event occuring if it has happened one billion times out of one billion. assume you have no prior knowledge of the nature of the event (it can't be a coin flip that lands on heads one billion times, then ask the probability of it landing tails the one billion 1st trial).

I would imagine there is no philosophically 100% correct answer to this but is there something that the scientific community uses as standard?

I posted this in probability and didn't get much of an answer.

thanks.