Re: Approximating Multiple Opponents
bigchips,
I answered the question given your assumptions. IF you have a 50% to beat hand 1 and a 50% chance to beat hand 2, then (assuming approximate independence, which will not always hold) you have a 25% chance of beating both.
It seems that was not your real question, and that you had a particular hand in mind. Reading your follow up posts, I am still not really clear what your after. Try to clarify.
gm
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