[StoneAge]

Ten people are playing 1-2 limit hold'em, one player is perfectly risk neutral and playing very profitably, one is risk loving and playing profitably, one is risk averse and playing profitably, the other seven are a mixture of risk loving and risk averse playing unprofitably.

We switch the game to 1-2 no limit with the assumption that everyone stays at the same level of risk loving/adverseness and that their relative skill level at limit and no limit is the same. If I understand you right this would mean that the risk averse/loving player's profitablility would go down and the risk neutral player's profitablility would necessarily have to increase.

So if you are a risk neutral profitable player, equally skilled at no limit and limit, no limit is more profitable(assuming the limit and no limit game are just as soft).

Am I overlooking/oversimplifiying?