[Toddster18]

[ QUOTE ]
A proposition:

"On all hands where the pot is unraised before the flop, at least one of the limpers/checkers has made a mistake."

True or false, in your opinion?

You may interpret the word "mistake" however you'd like (general usage, FTOP sense, or whatever else the word means to you) but if you feel your answer might be different if you used a different defintion, please give me a clue how you meant it.

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Equity wise, yes. Unless there is a pot where only two players are involved and they somehow are exactly 50/50 on equity, the player who has the most equity "should" have raised.

Alternatively, this is not always correct. Perhaps its folded to a player on the button with AA who knows the uberlag in the SB will go nuts without a hand against a button limper but that both blinds will fold to a raise. In this situation it's probably correct to simply call.

So, I say... as is (most) always the case... "it depends". [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img].

-Todd