Re: Can a number ever be small enough to be considered zero?
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Here is my question, given infinite trials, you can make the trial sample large enough to make whatever outlandish odds actually become a favorite to happen.
Given enough trials, '1 in X', no matter how large, becomes a favorite to happen.
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This is a mathematics beyond me (it doesn't take much anyway). Would you be kind enough to explain what you mean by a longshot becoming a favorite (if I understood it correctly)? Thanks.
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