[fizzleboink]

Here's my take on Shillx's example.

I think BB would only 3-bet PF with AA-TT and AK. The 3-bet the flop on tells me he has an overpair and not AK. On the turn you now beat KK-TT, putting yourself as a huge favorite to win the hand. However, if you raise the turn he will probably fold KK-TT right there. So you smooth call and let him bet out on the river, and raise him there. He 3-bets again, which tells you he can beat your pair of aces because the river card doesn't change anything. So I think the BB has AA and that is that.

Am I way off?

Edit: fixed a couple typos