[Cris]

If you had taken the time to read the whole thread before replying, you would have seen that in my first reply I wrote:

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The only time the currency does affect the rake such that it should be taken into consideration, is if you play limits where the pot frequently reaches the max rake level. The rake reaches its max at 3 currency units, regardless of the games currency.

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Could this be stated any clearer? Is it not obvious that this means that if you play limits where pots reach the max rake, you should obviously play $ tables. What we are discussing at this point is pots where the rake usually does not reach the max rake. In these cases the currency is not important.


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Albeit there is more money on the table, but that has nothing to do with it.

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This has everything to do with it. You don't see the high limit players dropping to the micros to pay less rake do you? What is relevant is the percentage of the pot that goes to rake.

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every time it lands on heads, I will give you $1. If it lands on tails, you give me a 1£.

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Again, you seem to have missed the point. In my post I compared a .5£/1£ table to a 1$/2$ table. I stated that these were close, the .5£/1£ being the equivalent to a .91$/1.82$. So as for your coinflipping proposal, the payoffs are .91$ for heads and .5£ (yes £) for tails. Seems fair to me.

I may have stated my points unclearly in my earlier posts in this thread. I hope this one clears it up.