[siegfriedandroy]

What are your thoughts on how the founding fathers of the US intended the 1st amendment to apply to 'religion' in the late 18th century. I am by no means a constitutional law scholar (although I have taken two law classes on con law, including one specifically on the first amendment). In general, it's my opinion that the Constitution (much like various religious texts) is often abused and wrenched severely out of context to support whatever modern agenda a certain group intends to advance. Maybe I will post a thread to this effect in the politics section, but surely it is relevant here as well:

What was the purpose/intent of the 'establishment clause' in the context of when and by whom it was written?

Did it really mean that no mention (or endorsement) of God may be made in the schools? Was this the father's intent?

Based on the limited knowledge I have of them, I would wager that the answer is surely 'no', but please correct me if im wrong. I am curious. If I am correct, then I am rightly frustrated that the true original intent/meaning of the document has been tortured. It seems disingenous to me for any modern political group to abuse this original intent simply to support their agenda 200 hundred years later.