[Shakespeare]

So I have I understood the lesson or am I still missing the point of fold equity?

NL Hold'em $30
Total number of players : 4

Seat 3: 2nd_in_chips ( $2120 )
Seat 6: Last_in_chips ( $1300 )
Seat 1: Folding_hero ( $2920 )
Seat 9: All_in_villan ( $1660 )

Blinds(200/400)
** Dealing down cards **
Dealt to Folding_hero [ Qh Kh ]
Last_in_chips folds.
All_in_villan is all-In.
Folding_hero folds.
2nd_in_chips calls [1260].

** Dealing Flop ** [ 4h, 6h, 3c ]
** Dealing Turn ** [ 8c ]
** Dealing River ** [ 8d ]

2nd_in_chips shows [ Kc, Qd ] a pair of eights.
All_in_villan shows [ 9d, 9s ] two pairs, nines and eights.
All_in_villan wins 3520 chips from the main pot with two pairs, nines and eights.

A couple of weeks ago I would have made this call, however I have read some articles here that have changed my way of thinking (or maybe I have misunderstood and should be calling this?). The reason I took this example is that I have a good hand in the SB and the BB has nearly the same strength hand.

After this hand the BB is now the short stack, he has moved from a position of relative strength to desperation. The next hand he will post 200 in the SB leaving him with 660 chips (440 if he completes).

Thanks and keep those lessons comming.