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Old 11-16-2005, 12:15 AM
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Default Re: Regression to the Mean vs. Gambler\'s Fallacy

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At what point is it safe to say that an event is more likely to occur because it has not occurred as much as expected over a long enough period of time, even though mathematically the probability of an individual trial remains the same?


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Never. The difference is saying that something will happen versus saying when it will happpen.
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