[FoxwoodsFiend]

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durrr,

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i think far >25% of the time villain doesnt have AA/KK.

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What? Help me out here; the action went call 50, call 50, call 50, raise to 500, tightest player at the table re-raises to 1000. Also, Hero has QQ. You think Villain has less than KK "way more than 25%" of the time? I think he has AA/KK 95% at least, with the odd JJ/other QQ thrown in, and some tiny allowance for insanity. I think he has AK less than 1% of the time.

Who would play AK this way? Why would you reraise, yet make it as inviting as possible for Hero to call if you have AK? Wouldn't you agree that most people are (at least) calling 500 more there with AK, JJ, and everything better, yet folding AK/JJ/QQ at least 25% of the time to a push of 5000?

The only reasoning for playing AK this way against a sane opponent that I can think of is that you feel a raise to 1000 is scarier, and think this guy is capable of laying down QQ and JJ for 500 more. The chances Villain is doing that are between slim and none, IMO.

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THANK YOU. I think it's absurd how little respect people are willing to give certain people's hands just because they didn't play their AA the same way we would.