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Old 12-19-2005, 01:46 PM
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Default Re: Why do SNG\'s have less variance?

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That's what I was thinking. The first post was a good read, but it doesn't give a comparative look. Does anyone have any comparative info to help explain why this statement can/should be considered true?

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El Diablo started a post in High Stakes NL/PL a week or so ago entitled "Variance" that was mostly full of crap, but a few players posted their standard deviations and profits over a few hands. Profit/standard deviation was like 50x higher in NL cash games than in SnGs.
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