[Wynton]

Maybe I've been misinterpreting your comments. First, I thought you were concluding that you were behind on the flop, because you put this particular player on a narrow range of hands. And I opined that your range was too narrow.

Yet, in light of the hand range you put villain on, you advocate: c/r the flop and (a) lead the turn if villain doesn't 3-bet the flop; or (b) c/f the turn if villain does 3-bet the flop. Is that a correct interpretation?

If so, Idon't think that line is bad (though it seems to contradict your assumption that you are behind a vast majority of the time on the flop). My only real objection to that line is that you are potentially giving free cards on the flop, or alternatively missing an opportunity to 3-bet against someone who is actually behind.