[vulturesrow]

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Answer me this then. How did the Catholic Church "get it right" when it compiled the books into the Cannon that would ultimately become the Bible as we know it in the 4th Century, yet subsequently lose its authority to preach authoritively on matters of Faith and Doctrine? Must that authority have been in place at the time of the Bible's compilation?


It often seems Protestants conveniently forget the first 1500 years of Christianity consisted of the Catholic Church and the Catholic Church alone.

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Im still trying to figure out where the Bible says it is the sole and infallible rule of faith and doctrine.... [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]