[andyfox]

"The only injustice was the eviction of all those jews 1500 years ago, before there even were any 'Arabs'. More importantly, there has been a continuous significant Jewish community in Israel since the dawn of history. The move of the european jews there was immigration, not colonization. Those people did not set the arabs to work in their fields or force on them slave labour, they simply created their own communities independent of the existing arab communities."

1) 1500 years ago is a long time to remedy an injustice, is it not? And how can it be the "only" injustice when hundreds of thousands of native lost their homes in 1948?

2) Why the e of quotation marks for "Arabs"?

3) There were Jews at the dawn of history? In any event, the vast majority of the population of Palestine at the start of Zionism (I mean Herzl's Zionist) was not Jewish. It was Palestinian.

4) Of course Zionism was colonization. It was advertised as a colonial enterprise by the founders of Zionism from the get-go.

5) There is plenty of evidence to contradict your rosy picture of the impact of Zionism on the natives. One doesn't have to rely on Arab propaganda, one can read Ahad Ha'am or other early Zionist settlers, Jabotinsky, Buber or other Jewish sources from a variety of political perspectives.