[Robk]

Anyway, here's how I approach the problem. If you only know your two cards, the chances of flopping exactly one pair are what Dynasty said. But the chances of flopping one pair or better are
1-(No A or K) = 1- (44c3)/(50c3) =.324
If you know that one (additional) A and one K are out, and no other cards, the chances of flopping one pair or better are
1-(No A or K) =1- (44c3)/(48c3) =.234
If you also know one A one K and 16 other (nonaces/kings) are dead the chance of flopping one pair or better is
1-(28c3)/(32c3)= .340
So the chances have gone up slightly.
If you wanted the prob of flopping exactly one pair in this last case it is (28c2)(4c1)/(32c3)= what Dynasty said.
If you wanted the prob of exactly one pair in the second case it is (44c2)(4c1)/(48c3) = .219