[milesdyson]

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... I don't think either of these things are going to be true > 60% of the time.


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what needs to happen more than 60% for betting the flop to be correct?

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I was responding to the guy that said you want to bet the flop so that people will think you don't have overcards. My feeling is that the majority of the time at these limits that's a crap reason for betting because in order for the bet to be correct FOR THAT REASON you are presuming what I said you'd have to presume.

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i get that you're saying they're going to find reasons to "continue in the hand," but i'm wondering where you got the 60% number.