Hi guys. I humbly request the help of the STT forum for a simple question. I know you guys have like your own thing going on here, so, I don't mean to intrude or be disrespectful. The hand played like this:
PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t20 (2 handed)
FTR converter on zerodivide.cx
Hero (t1270)
BB (t1730)
Preflop: Hero is Button with 9[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], J[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img].
Hero raises to t60, BB calls t40.
Flop: (t120) J[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 4[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (2 players)
BB checks, Hero bets t80, BB calls t80.
Turn: (t280) 6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (2 players)
BB checks, Hero bets t100, BB raises to t240, Hero raises to t400, BB calls t160.
River: (t1080) Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] (2 players)
BB checks, Hero bets t200, BB raises to t400, Hero calls t200.
Final Pot: t1880
This opponent was pretty passive, and on the river after the check/raise I put him on exactly a flush, probably ruling out the two or three lowest ones, considering that my turn play was pretty, well, obvious. I put myself slightly ahead of his range.
My question is strictly about the river. What do you guys think of the river smooth call? Like I said, I put myself ahead of his range, and I'd be willing to bet that he'd call for all my chips with anything he'd check/raise with, but on instinct I decided to just call anyway. My logic was something like, if I'm wrong I go broke and that's it, but if I'm right it's only another few hundred.
Does that make any sense to you guys? From a tournament theory perspective?
PS - I voted for citanul.