[Piiop]

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Why do you assume you're ahead in hand 1 and not hand 2? I'm not sure it is a WA/WB hand often enough to take this line. It's really quite likely you have him reverse dominated now (ie he has AK, AQ).

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In hand 1, we're not ever way ahead. When he has AK/AQ, he has 6 outs. We want him to fold those hands.

In hand 2, we're either way ahead because we have him reverse dominated or he has an underpair, or we're way behind to an overpair or set. The wa/wb line maximizes wins and minimizes losses. We don't want him to fold AK/AQ so we don't need to bet into him. If he bets AK on the flop and turn and calls a river bet, that's great for us. If we c/r the flop and he folds the turn - thats bad for us.