[Gonzoman]

[ QUOTE ]

Thanks for the reply. I know that my math was off, if you look at it in the way you took it. But I think I'm asking a different question than what you suggest. That's why I didn't took in calculation the probablity of the occurance happening on the former streets. I was trying to look at each street for its own, only I'm not sure I did it right, and how one should actually do it. I didn't try to solve it, or to get the right probablity, but only to see, in a way, what is "more probable".

I will rephrase my question (or actually phrase it for the first time):


Player A had AA, player B had 22. They were both all-in pre-flop. You *know* player B outdrew player A by hitting his set on one of the streets. What is the probablity he hit his set on any specific street?



[/ QUOTE ]

Each street is equally likely. You assume one and only one of the 2's will be on the board of 5 cards. This problem is equivalent to having 5 cards in your hand 1 of which is a 2. Shuffle them out and turn them over face up. The 2 has an equal probability of being in each of the 5 streets.