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Because if you were so weak-tight that you were folding most flops u got 3-bet before the flop, then reraising with any 2 cards against you might have made sense.

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This is exactly what I wanted to hear someone say.

If you raise QJ in the CO and a TAG button 3-bets you, c/folding a 7 high flop isn't terrible. You don't have 6 clean outs all that often, so the best EV play is usually folding even with the pot laying 7:1 or 8:1. Then, 2 hands after that you raise A9s, get cold-called by a TAG and the flop comes QJ3 with none of your suit. You bet, he raises, you fold. Sometimes you actually take a stand against your opponent, and this time he has top two or whatever. Blah, Blah, Blah....we've all been there.

So, this guy with the J8o sees that happen a few times and (what I believe is incorrectly) assumes that I'm weak-tight and A) can't possibly start with a pair and B) will continue to keep missing flops because I'm "running bad".

I think his logic is way off base and highly flawed, but you seem to understand it. Thoughts?