Re: Flop Odds Question
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I'll try this one.
there are 17,296 possible flops from the 48 cards left in the deck.
there are 46 possible flops containing both Ks.
Prob(2K on flop | AA, KK known hole cards) = 46/17,296 = 0.266%.
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Not sure where you got the 17,296 from so maybe you can explain. I did it a different way :
A flop of :
k(1) k(2) x
Where x is any card other than the 2 aces and 4 kings, x = 46. There's then 6 ways you can arrange a flop given the 2 kings. They are :
k(1) k(2) x
k(2) k(1) x
x k(1) k(2)
x k(2) k(1)
k(1) x k(2)
k(2) x k(1)
Each one of those has 46 different ways of coming up so 46 * 6 = 276 possible different flops.
Given that I know 4 cards, there's 48 cards that can come out first, then 47 cards, and finally 46. 48*47*46 = 103776 total possible flops.
So I took the King flops (276) and divided it by the total possible flops (103776) and I get 0.00266 or 0.266%, the same answer you gave me.
So it seems as if the math is correct, I'm just not seeing how you got 17296 possible flops but it's a hot day and my mind isn't working too well today [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]
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Divide 103776 by 6 and you get 17296. He's counting each flop only once ignoring order, instead of 6 times, and this is the number of combinations = C(48,3) = 17296. You computed the number of permutations = P(48,3) = 103776.
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