Re: Rephrasing the question
I may be wrong but im thinking about this:
"Let's say they're playing with $5 and $10 blinds. On the flop, the LHE player can only bet $10. The other player can bet or raise any amount he would be allowed to in pot limit"
If they are both equally good at playing their cards, lets say they both get the same amount of luck and cards after playing for x hours.
Player A = Limit player
Player B = Pot Limit player
Ignoring preflop action.
If the unraised pot is 20$ and player A can only bet a maximum of 10$ player B would be getting 3:1 odds for calling. This means he would be making profit more often than player B with this edge because:
If the unraised pot was 20$ and player B bet the maximum of 20$ then player A would be getting 2:1 odds.
I may be wrong but isnt this true?
If it is i believe that after playing for x amount of hours with the same amount of good and bad cards player B would earn more profit.
What do you think?
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