[Biggle10]

I'm going to make the assumption that button always bets regardless if he hits is draw or not. Big assumption I know. I realize that SB is less likely to call with just QQ or less and the button doesn't always bet busted draw. I guess this is just some 'poker theory' analysis. My math might be off.

P(Flush or QQ improves) = (1/4.25 + 1/2.5) - (1/4.25 * 1/2.5) = 54% that one or other improves. So basically I'm getting slightly less than 1:1 odds that my hand is best while the pot is offering me 5:1

Is my analysis flawed here? I'm not sure how to do the math, if villian only bets busted draw 1/3 of the time and the SB only calls with QQ unimproved 1/2 the time.