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Old 10-27-2005, 03:39 AM
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Default Re: 3 suited card flops: made flush?

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1 - (1 - 15/392)^N.

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Could you please explain the thinking behind this formula?? I understand that (1 - 15/392) is calculating the probability that one face down hand doesn't have the flush, but I forget why we have to approach the problem from this angle.
Cheers
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