Re: Pure probability question
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Answer in white:
<font color="white">e=1+1+1/2+1/6+1/24+...+1/n!+...
The probability that the sum of the first n is at most 1 is 1/n!. </font>
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pzhon,
i can verify this by doing the multiple integral directly for the first few terms, but i don't see the trick behind this one line proof. can you explain?
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