I gave 3:2 odds that Party would give an off-topic answer. My friend gave 2:1. Guess what, it turns out that Party didn't quite answer my question. I thought the hand context made it clear that I was asking about the Bad Beat Jackpot. Instead, I got the answer that a royal flush qualifies for the High Hand Jackpot. In any case, here is the correspondence thus far for everyone's entertainment:


My Email:

Let's say that the board is AcKcKhKsQc. I hold JcTc, giving me a royal flush. If my opponent holds AdKd, does his Ad play, meaning that the jackpot is awarded? Or, does the Ac on the board play, meaning that there is no jackpot?


Party's Response:

I understand your concern. However, I would like to inform you that as per your email if the board cards are Ac, Kc, Kh, Ks, and Qc, and your hole cards are Jc and Tc, you automatically qualify for the jackpot as you have a royal flush. If your opponent has Ad and Kd he does not qualify for the jackpot as he does not have the royal flush.


My Response:

I originally sent the following question to you:

Let's say that the board is AcKcKhKsQc. I hold JcTc, giving me a royal
flush. If my opponent holds AdKd, does his Ad play, meaning that the jackpot
is awarded? Or, does the Ac on the board play, meaning that there is no
jackpot?

I thank you very much for the response you gave; however, I was vague, and forgot to state that this is for consideration for the bad beat jackpot only...I know that the royal flush qualifies for the high hand jackpot. If you could answer my question with respect to the bad beat jackpot, it would be much appreciated.

/**************/

So, does Party answer the question I posed, or do I get the generic, both hole cards of both hands must play.