First & foremost, I admire your awesome flop hitting skills [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img].

BB play.
5:38 64o - SB open raises, you call
If you're calling this, then are you calling any two HU vs SB? I ask, b/c you folded all the following:
1:47 J7o - UTG PFR, CO CCs, you fold
7:28 Q7o - EP PFR, folded around (his stats are 29/29/1.0/67)
11:14 K4o - UTG limp, Btn raise, you fold


SB play. I'm confused.
1:56 K2s - UTG limp, you fold
3:06 K2s - UTG+1 limp, you fold
Am I assuming correctly that you won't play these b/c, having only one card w/o odds to hit flush make this unplayable?
10:00 K6s - 3 limp, you call
And I'm guessing this is good enough, b/c of odds for FD & not b/c of high card value, since MW action increases likelihood of domination. Right/wrong?
2:20 T6s UTG limp, you call
I'm confused, b/c I'd rather have K2s here, rather than T6s.
5:43 66 - UTG raises, Btn CC, you call
I don't see the odds to call here, PFR seems to have high WTS.

Btn play.
8:33 A7s board is 9674r.
You have 5 outs, and you're getting 8:1. Is that not enough?

10:37 ATo you raise on Btn CO limp. board is Ks4JsKd.
Did you think he had a 4 or a draw? I don't understand the reason behind the bet.

Other SB hand
11:17 95s - MP & CO call, you call (again, you call this but not K2s)
Board is 9857, you're raised by opponent w/ 3.3 AF. I guess we give him credit for calling the flop w/ a 6 or JT? Is there no chance you're ahead? I'm not much of a postflop player, but you're getting 6.5:1.


Also, what's that program you're using? I only know about Playerview & Gametime & I don't think it's either of those.