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Old 12-31-2005, 04:39 PM
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Default Re: call 2 back with the 4th nuts?

If you estimate that you have 35% equity on the flush draw, a flop lead would be for value (albeit a thin edge) if you got even 2 callers, which doesn't seem unreasonable on this board. The main reason for a flop lead, however, would be to avoid telegraphing the flush draw, which seems to carry some implied odds with it, as your opponents are more likely to call bets when you make your hand. I am not totally sure about my reasoning here, I'm just stating what I understood from a similar hand I posted a while back where I was told to lead a similar high-card flop with a non-nut flush draw.
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