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At 20/40 the avg player loses .76BB/100. Just to be sure you understand what this means - every hundred hands, the avg player loses .76BB to the rake. Now, the question is, what's the variance? What's the SD?
You may have something with the coin flip theory. But there should be some way to figure this out.
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The rake is .75BB/10, not /100, no? 7.5BB/100. and that's only if it stays a 10-player table.
This has come up recently. Note Rudbaeck's posts in this
thread :
> My poker tracker shows me that 39% are winning and 61% are losers.
Haven't you been on here long enough to know that these two datapoints actually support each other?
Your session results will form a bell curve around your long term true win rate, the steepness of which depends on your standard deviation. The peak of the curve coincides with your true win rate.
Now picture this in your mind, put the top of the curve at -3BB/100. Notice that a wide part of the curve is in the black?
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but I'm still not quite satisfied either.
PS I also see you a lot in 15-30--you play more 20-40 than that?