[Mikey]

what I don't understand is this, esp. on pages 181. "We each ante $100, but after the draw --- which you do not see --- I can bet $100."

Before the draw the pot contains $200 right?

"Suppose I said I'm going to bet $100 every time. Clearly you would call every time because you would stand to win $200 the 24 times I'm bluffing and win $200 the 18 times I have the best hand for a profit of $1200."

My question is why all of a sudden does the ante belong to us. In my usual estimation of problems like this I would like to tend to believe that the pot doesn't belong to me or a part of the pot doesn't belong to me.

Therefore when he bets $100 I stand to win $300 18 times and lose $100 24 times.

Why is it being put this way?