Re: Villain\'s Hand
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I was just seeing it as the overall EV of the hand and an opponent's tendency to call with lesser holdings...in hand 1, with more in the pot relative to what villain has to call, youll get calls from worse hands...in hand 2, you'll get less frequent calls by hands that you are ahead of. therefore you stand to profit more in the long run in hand 1?
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I just want to make sure we have all the info clear.
Hand 1:
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Flop: (t45) J[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 4[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 9[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (3 players)
<font color="red">Hero bets t45</font>, BB calls t45, <font color="red">CO+1 raises t125</font>, Hero ...
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Hand 2:
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Flop (t90) is 7 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 5 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 2 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]
Action: checked to MP who bets t75, CO calls, Hero c/r allin....
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Now, what is it about Hand 1 that makes it less likely that villain is NOT calling my 3bet?
Furthermore:
Hand 1: 260 dead chips before I move allin
Hand 2: 240 dead chips before I move allin
I don't know how you weight backdoor str8 draw, but I give you that we have 2 more strong outs with the first hand over the second. Other than that, I see these hands as very very similar.
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