[cardshark]

Help me understand with a simplified example, please. (I am not claiming one way or another, I am only asking a question).

If I you roll a die, the odds of rolling, let’s say “3”, are 1/6. How about if you are about to roll the die six times, and I make a bet that you will roll “3” on the third roll; are the odds still 1/6?

By the way, baggins, I do not know how the lottery works but I don’t think the state would lose any money if many people bet the same numbers. I think that the state takes a percentage off of the entire “pot” (whatever the proper lotto terminology may be) and the winnings get distributed amongst a larger number of winners. Thus each winner ends up with a smaller piece of the pie. But I may be wrong because I don’t really know much about lottery. (Except that it is a game of chance, in theory).