[Nottom]

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I read this to mean that if I pick any suit, there is a 9% chance that someone holds Ax of that suit; the implications are that if there are 3 of the same suit on the board than 9 percent of the time in a ten handed game someone has the nut flush. This seems way too high. I can perhaps see that there is a 9% probability that someone has Axs, but not Ax of a specific suit. BTW, he does say that if you have two of the specific suit for a flush the probability goes down to about 6% that someone else has the A-nut flush.

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Without going into the math, this assumption is incorrect. David is saying that without knowing anything about the cards, there is a 9% chance someone has a suited Ace. If you have a mono-tone flop then it would greatly reduce the chance that someone has a suited Ace in that suit. If the flop is monotone and you have a flush then this chance would be reduced even more.