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Old 08-13-2004, 05:28 AM
EdSchurr EdSchurr is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2004
Posts: 1
Default Re: Flopped set on a suited flop: Cap of fold?

The only problem I see is adding the probabilities. I'm not 100% sure I'm right, but here is the reasoning for the way I did it (some discrete math required...though...I'll explain it):

You want the probability of hitting on the turn and/or hitting on the river. The math function you want is "or".

So (x)OR(y)=the percent of hitting on the river from the flop.

You can't just add to do OR. There is, in fact, no really easy way to do it. But AND is easy -- you just multiply the terms together -- and we can make OR look like AND by DeMorgen's rule/law/something.

So we negate the equation twice, because !(!(1)) is still 1. (I'm using the ! symbol to be negation, from comp sci)

"!" by the way is the same as doing 1-x. !(!(1)) is 1-(1-(1)) which is 1.

The reason we negate the equation is because negating an OR produces an AND. So !((x)OR(y)) is (!x)AND(!y).

So, with some rough numbers, !(!(20% OR 30%)) is !(80% AND 70%). To do the AND function, try .8*.7 which is .56. So we have !(56%), which is finally 34%. I'm not sure about the best way to do calculations on the fly. Practice I guess. There are usually approximations that exist but I don't know them.

And so concludes our discrete math for poker lesson, which may or may not be wrong, and which may or may not be applicable. [img]/images/graemlins/crazy.gif[/img]
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