[AceKQJT]

This hypothetical hand actually from a hand I played last night. I just want to use it as an example for my main question:

Assuming you have what you KNOW is the winning hand at the river AND you believe that your single opponent has a GOOD hand AND you act first AND you know the opponent is strong enough to know he may be beat, but he probably is ahead; Would it be +EV to make a ridiculously low river bet in order to get the opponent to raise your bet to a level that he figures he would have called anyway?

I hope you can follow what I'm getting at.

So let's say you have Q [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] . You are MP1 (T1500) and raise 3x (15/30) when it is folded to you. Folded to LP1 (T1350) holding J [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], who smooth-calls. All else fold.

Flop: Q [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] - 2 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] - 7 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] (T-225)
You bet T-100, He thinks....thinks...calls

Turn: 9 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] (T-425)
You bet T-200, He calls

River 3 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (T-725)
You bet 50???

How could anyone JUST CALL that? I mean, any hand that went that far would certainly have to raise, right? LOL Anyone who folds to that bet would have to be a complete ass. Can this be considered a "strategy"?


BTW, JJ pushed and I called LOL
--Casey