Teach me something, guys....
my thoughts/questions...
1. why didn't LP 3-bet it pre-flop? slow-play?
2. shouldn't the poster have re-raised the flop based on the strength of his hand (top pair, top kicker?). in addition, couldn't this play have represented KK? i'm sure there's another level of thinking i'm missing out on.
thanks for the input, guys.
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