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[Intentionally putting someone in a situation from which there is slim to no hope of escape/life and often times being directly responsible for the death is first degree murder.
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Not if you don't know in advance that it will lead to death. First degree murder requires pre-meditation of the intention to kill. The key question is what the Nazis true intentions were.
I'm not in any position to debate the issue because I never studied the subject, but the revisionists' position seems fair and believable to me. Is there any part of it which you consider not believable? If so, which part?
Here is a
summary.
What I am saying is that P666's statement that the Nazis did not commit first degree murder is consistent with his version of the facts. If you want to show that the Nazis
did commit first degree murder, then you are better off debating the facts of what went on at the time rather than talking about the definition of first degree murder.
I realize that it was Gamblor who mostly talked about that but since you endorsed it I figure I could reply to your post just the same.
You guys seem to regard US (or Canadian) law as some sort of sacred scripture or gospel. For the definition of a legal term that was coined in the US it may be, but for a broader scale debate like this Holocaust issue, it is tangential at best.