[pfkaok]

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But it seemed like you were saying that $250 sats have lower variance than $250 MTTs. this isn't true.

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??????????

A 500 man tourney that gives 50 prizes of equal value has more variance than a 500 man tourney where half of the money goes to the top three? Wow.

A satellite can pay a significantly lower % of the field and still have lower variance.

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UGH...

IF you're playing the $250 sat. with the plan of selling the $2500 seat, then yes, you're correct. the $250 sat has less variance. That is obvious.

However, normally you're playing the sat in order to win a seat and play the larger event. this will be WAY more variance than a normal $250 buyin MTT.

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Not if you are rolled to play the 2500 and will buyin if you don't win in, an assumption which was stated throughout. If you're going to join a discussion late at least read and understand what's been said already.

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Um...

I did read the entire thread.

I understand that buying into $2500 tourneys is higher variance than using $250 sats to get in. I don't know why you seem to think i'm saying different. you should be listening to your own words, and reading the entire post of mine. How many times do i need to repeat myself.

My point is that buying into $250 MTTs has lower variance than the $250 sats. this is certainly true. think about it some before misreading something i said in order to be able to disagree.

Assume a BR requirement of 100 buyins. even if its low as ZJ says, it really doesn't matter for the example. Anyways. for $250 MTTs, you'd need a BR of $25,000. For $2500 MTTs, you'd need $250,000. To play sats, you'd need a BR of close to the bigger event, but maybe say 70-80%. That would be a $175-200,000 BR.

I'm not sure, my math degree is from a U.C. school, not some fancy Ivy league. But i'm still smart enough to be confident in the fact that 175,000 > 25,000.

To me, when tournament A requires a BR of 7 or 8 times the BR needed for tournament B... its pretty safe to say that tourney A has more variance than tourney B