[oxymoron]

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If we assume his hand range is AT[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] (1), KQ[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] (1), and KJ[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] (1), then raising is a break-even play. Note: I am assuming that he'll only cap with the nuts, since many players who are willing to cap the river with two pair will raise the flop with one, especially top pair and a good kicker.

What if his cold-calling range is wider, though? If we add in AT (15) and KQ (3), then 3-betting is clearly wrong. However, if he's willing to call this turn with AT, then he might cold-call with KJ (3) and he'd probably call the flop and turn with AK (4). Guess it all depends on whether you think he'll cold-call with AT. But either way, I definitely call a cap.

Scott

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I really do not like how MP played this unless he has two pair. If he chased the gutshot that sucks. If he had AT [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] or 9T [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] why isn't he raising at somepoint if not for a freecard? If he hit a set where is the raise?

My thinking is he has KJ even though it is very unlikely since two KK's are out. OR he has 9T but again when a solid player has position where is the raise before the river?