Re: Are Winrates Normally Distributed?
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If I am not mistaken, according to the central limit theorem they certainly must be normally distributed.
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In order the central limit theorom to be applicable, the sample's variate's must be:
1) independent
and
2) distributed arbitrarily.
I think arguments can be made in support of both being true or false.
I also think that the nature of the player is very important, as well as the game they are plaing (limit, NL)
I think an equally interesting question is, if you were to model BB/100, what would it be a function of?
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