I put myself in a difficult situation
Party 6-max 50 NL.
Didn't have many hands on villain but he seemed rather loose-aggro.
I get A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]A [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] in MP. No limpers to me and i raise to $2. SB folds and BB (villain) reraises to $6. I just call his raise.
Flop: Q [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]J [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (Pot: $12.25)
Villain bets $10 into me. I'm a little puzzled here and decides to just call and see what he does on the turn.
Turn: 3 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (Pot: $32.25)
Villain pushes for his remaining $30. I have him covered. What do I do? Should I have pushed, or maybe folded, the flop instead?
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